mayliee
mayliee mayliee
  • 03-11-2021
  • Mathematics
contestada

Why is 42 x 4−2 equal to 1?

Respuesta :

troyow10
troyow10 troyow10
  • 03-11-2021

Answer: I dont know, sorry.

Answer Link
Minxpop Minxpop
  • 03-11-2021
It doesn’t link, sorry but it’s not equal to 1 what do ever!!
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

What is the sum of 3/8 and 1/16? A. 1/4 B. 1/6 C. 4/24 D. 7/16
Which of the following does the Consumer Price Index (CPI) measure? A. recessions B. inflation C.interest rates D.unemployment
Kennedys political agenda was known as the new deal true or false
Solve this equation: α ÷ 6 + 4 = 16
why are scientist surprised to find coal in artic
What happened to Chinese scholars during the Mongol rule? Please answer if you know it.
Is 7/12 bigger than 1/2
Wind in the atmosphere and currents in the ocean are caused by uneven heating that produces _____
What rhetorical effect does the personification pf the word prudence have in the following excerpt from the Declaration of Independence
why did slavery start in the colonies